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In the "Effect" section of this article is the following entry:
"Although perhaps not a supplement to Moore's argument, it has been mentioned in undergraduate philosophy classes that Moore famously mistook his own sense perception once in a lecture. Whereby he claimed 'there is a window' pointing at a curtain in a gymnasium, but when a student pulled the curtain away it was merely a wall. Whether this is a philosophical urban legend or not, there is little doubt that optical illusions and hallucinations can cause unreliable sense perceptions."
I don't believe "optical illusions" and "hallucinations" are accurate terms in that scenario. He did not believe he SAW a window, but rather he ASSUMED there to be a window. There was no illusion or hallucination, either of which would mean he saw a glass-paned window that did not in fact exist. He saw only curtains, and assumed the nature of what lay behind. I suppose it is true, then, that "'false assumptions' can cause unreliable sense perceptions."
THANK YOU!!! - -- Carlon 03:00, 7 August 2007 (UTC)
Isn't the argument better described as it actually appears? As O, ~H -> ~O |- H?
What an apologist! -- Carlon 03:00, 7 August 2007 (UTC)
Remind me to tidy this page up after fiddling with https://docs.google.com/document/d/1XFdpTPbtxY2sAPl5c8u9yVTQ72B9NPxxX5nAKlJ5i6k/edit?usp=sharing or I'll never remember. 89.240.133.40 ( talk) 10:38, 26 March 2019 (UTC)
Moore's argument flips the modus ponens structure into a modus tollens:
- If A then B.
- Not B.
- Therefore not A.
I am missing something here... Shouldn't that be Iff (=If and only if) A then B ? Otherwise, Not B does not necessarily imply not A. After all, 'Not B' could have come about in other ways, no?-- Goodmorningworld ( talk) 22:39, 15 October 2008 (UTC)
(A->B) being true is equal to (B is true or A is false) being True Therefore if (A->B) and B is false then A is false (because if A is True and B false then (A->B) is False or that would break the fact that A->B is True). And A True Iff B True would basically mean A <=> B (A->B (the if part) + A<-B(the only if part)) A keyboard is not the best to convey this i guess.... —Preceding unsigned comment added by 81.80.239.162 ( talk) 15:40, 27 November 2008 (UTC)
What's the sound of it clapping? Totnesmartin ( talk) 09:53, 7 August 2010 (UTC)
How is this valid? I've seen my hand in dreams, and with the help of mirrors i could show i have more than 2 hands. How is using your senses that have been proven to not be reliable to recognize the existence of hands proof that they do exist? -- TiagoTiago ( talk) 04:01, 3 November 2011 (UTC)
Many years before Moore was born, Descartes wrote, in his Meditations, I, 12: "I will suppose…that some malignant demon, who is at once exceedingly potent and deceitful, has employed all his artifice to deceive me; I will suppose that…all external things, are nothing better than the illusions of dreams, by means of which this being has laid snares for my credulity; I will consider myself as without hands…or of any of the senses, and as falsely believing that I am possessed of these…." Lestrade ( talk) 22:28, 8 June 2012 (UTC)Lestrade
This article is wrong about what Moore was arguing against. Cf. http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/moore/#6. Quoting SEP:
I might rewrite it later, but someone else can do it as well. Deleet ( talk) 07:51, 15 November 2012 (UTC)
I have suggested in talk:Handwaving that Moore's 'proof' might be the origin of the term 'handwaving' as a 'glossed over' or superficial approach to proving an idea or theorem. I am not sure whether this is correct, but I can't find any references to handwaving as a method of 'proof' earlier than 1939, when Moore used it in his lecture.-- TonyFleet ( talk) 10:55, 16 June 2013 (UTC)
Why is there a response from a random article? There should only be responses from actual philosophers. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 108.34.164.41 ( talk) 06:54, 22 February 2018 (UTC)
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