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T.E.A.
Hi,
I've been told and I found in the internet that the word "tea" would derive from a confusion on the meaning of the letters "T.E.A." on the first supplies of tea leaves to Great Britain, the actual meaning of "TEA" having been "Transporte de Ervas Aromaticas" in Portuguese language - see here:
https://ilastinwanderlust.wordpress.com/2014/09/15/guimaraes-where-t-e-a-comes-from/ This looks like a kind of
urban legend, but would someone here be able to refute it with references? It might be useful to add it to the article as well.
Thanks,
Kostia (
talk)
15:57, 30 July 2017 (UTC)reply
This is just too silly to deserve any treatment anywhere. The article describes the rich entanglement of the various (well, three, really) base forms of the name, and where they came from. Any idiot can make up a silly story for the internet; unless such an urban myth had been accepted for a half-century at some stage, it does not deserve a mention.
Imaginatorium (
talk)
16:36, 30 July 2017 (UTC)reply
Japanese / Korean
When and how do Japanese and Korean use words like da/ta for tea, and in that case, aren't they also derived from Chinese, just as cha? It looks similar as to how Japanese uses the root sa- for tea in certain compounds, such as kissaten.
惑乱 Wakuran (
talk)
17:06, 13 September 2020 (UTC)reply
Chai as a separate category
The northern derived pronunciation referenced in the chai section is not substantively different from the root of all of the other cha variations. Additionally, most other online sources discussing this topic only recognize two buckets of pronunciation, tea and cha.
2600:1700:721:5D40:9590:E922:B85B:FB59 (
talk)
22:24, 7 August 2022 (UTC)reply
Indeed. If "tea" and "thé" are considered the same category, "chá" and "chai" should also be considered the same category. They both only have one difference, the ending vowel sound - in the former case, the long high unrounded vowel [iː] vs. the mid-front unrounded vowel [e]; in the latter case, the open front unrounded vowel [a] vs. the diphthong [aɪ]. Arguably, because chai contains the [a] phoneme, it's actually *more* similar to chà than thè is to tea.
On top of this, it's difficult not to notice the lack of citations for all claims for a 3-bucket classification, while the rest of the article is generally well-referenced.
Octopirate (
talk)
16:56, 19 June 2024 (UTC)reply
Can we please stop viewing history from an exclusively western pov and refer to “Persian” and “Persia” from a native pov where we are IRANIANS? Chances are the people who borrowed Chay and introduced it into Iranian culture were probably ancestors of the modern day Tajiks or Pashtuns, not the actual modern day Persians. For the most part, Persian and Persia is just an exonym. It’s about time we called everything historical “Iran” or “Iranian”.
86.21.89.89 (
talk)
10:45, 22 June 2024 (UTC)reply
AFAIK, Iran officially started calling itself Iran during the
Ilkhanate regime, in the 13th century. The
Silk Road, OTOH, knew its heyday between 206 BC and 220 AD, and at that time whoever lived there, including the Graeco-Romans whose name for the region (admittedly an exonym) was "Persia", was drinking tea and giving it a name. —
Tonymec (
talk)
07:59, 1 July 2024 (UTC)reply