07:0507:05, 5 July 2024diffhist−125
Fundamental theorem of calculus
A counter-example: let f be a function on [0, 2] such that f(1) = 1 and f(x) = 0 for the rest of the points. Then, f is Riemann Integrable on [0, 2] yet it does not even have an antiderivative (indefinite integral) on [0, 2]; i.e., there is no function g on [0, 2] such that g' = f. The FTC (first and second) does not claim that derivatives and integrals are inverses of each other but under certain condition there is a relation beetween derivative, indefinite integrals, and definite integral.Tags: RevertedVisual editMobile editMobile web edit
15:3515:35, 4 July 2024diffhist+930
Twitter
The, so-called, consensus was for the infobox, not for the lede. Also, as the text "According to Musk" added, your justification in the talk page does not apply; you go and see the discussionTag: Undo